陳同學(xué)
2024-09-22 18:17原版書(shū)課后題:The most appropriate risk attribution approach for the fixed-income manager is to:A. decompose historical returns into a top-down factor framework.B. evaluate the marginal contribution to total risk for each position. C. attribute tracking risk to relative allocation and selection decisions. 我選的是A,因?yàn)槲恼轮刑岬健癿anager has strong views about the effects of macroeconomic factors on credit markets and follows a top-down investment process.” 既有factor還有topdown 所以這道題為什么還要選 相對(duì)指標(biāo)?
所屬:CFA Level III > Performance Measurement 視頻位置 相關(guān)試題
來(lái)源: 視頻位置 相關(guān)試題
1個(gè)回答
開(kāi)開(kāi)助教
2024-09-27 09:30
該回答已被題主采納
同學(xué)你好,這題確實(shí)有些問(wèn)題的,首先top down是原文里面寫(xiě)的,說(shuō)這個(gè)fixed-income manager follows a top-down investment process. 但是他是relative還是absolute的,這個(gè)很難看出來(lái)。但是協(xié)會(huì)又沒(méi)有勘誤,因此我們只能默認(rèn)它是對(duì)的。有一個(gè)比較間接的理由是表格中的數(shù)據(jù)中有capture ratio,而capture ratio必須要有benchmark才能計(jì)算。但這個(gè)理由確實(shí)比較強(qiáng)行。
如果答疑對(duì)你有幫助,【請(qǐng)采納】喲~。加油,祝你順利通過(guò)考試~
