Victorhuo
2020-07-29 21:0101.單選題 收藏 糾錯 Company A can borrow at a fixed rate of 6.0% and a floating rate of LIBOR ＋ 1.0%; but Company A wants to borrow at a floating rate. Company B, which represents a higher credit risk, can borrow at a fixed rate of 8.0% and a floating rate of LIBOR ＋ 2.0%; but Company B wants to borrow at a fixed rate. An investment bank is willing to act as a swap intermediary but will require a net payment of 20 basis points (0.2%) per annum. If the designed swap is equally attractive to both companies, what is Company B’s swap trade with the investment bank; i.e., the swap trade only, not including the underlying borrowing? A Company B pays 5.1% fixed and receives (floating) LIBOR (swap only) B Company B pays 5.6% fixed and receives (floating) LIBOR (swap only) C Company B pays 7.6% fixed and receives (floating) LIBOR (swap only) D Company B pays 8.0% fixed and receives (floating) LIBOR (swap only)， 這道題為啥答案是B，要用6%-0.4%，而不是C，用8%-0.4%？
所屬：FRM Part I > Financial Markets and Products 視頻位置 相關試題
來源： 視頻位置 相關試題
1個回答
Adam助教
2020-07-30 16:54
該回答已被題主采納
同學你好，如下圖，
如果是付8%-0.4，那么對應的，他要收到的是L+2%.
但這道題他是假定的收L，所以要付5.6%
兩種情況B的凈現(xiàn)金流都是一樣的，看下圖
0
0
0
0
