李同學(xué)
2018-04-17 09:59老師,習(xí)題600題麻煩講解下,如果用delta法算時,為什么用strick price2200作為call option的價格?謝謝!
所屬:FRM Part I 視頻位置 相關(guān)試題
來源: 視頻位置 相關(guān)試題
1個回答
金程教育吳老師助教
2018-04-17 10:43
該回答已被題主采納
學(xué)員你好,最新版600題(麻煩最好把題目貼上,怕對不上)
An at-the money European call on the DJ EURO STOXX 50 index a strike of 2200 and maturing in 1 year is trading at EUR 350, where contract value is determined by EUR 10 per index point. The risk-free rate is 3% per year, and the daily volatility of the index is 2.05%. If we assume that the expected return on the DJ EURO STOXX 50 is 0%, the 99% 1-day VaR of a short position on a single call calculated using the delta-normal approach is closest to:
A. EUR 8
B. EUR 53
C. EUR 84
D. EUR 525
學(xué)員你好 。指數(shù)2000點,一個點價值10歐元,所以根據(jù)delta normal法里的delta法 VAR=△×z×P×σ (注意:這題指數(shù)收益率均值為0)
P的價格就為2000×10=20000(注意:指數(shù)價格計算規(guī)則FRM里是這樣的,這題需要以指數(shù)為標(biāo)的,用delta法)
At the money delta題目默認為0.5(注意:實際中delta>0.5)
Zα=2.33
波動率用標(biāo)的資產(chǎn)的, 是2.05%
平時做題的時候也要小心天數(shù)導(dǎo)致的之轉(zhuǎn)換,例如1 day VAR 轉(zhuǎn)換為 10 day VAR
