張同學(xué)
2022-10-06 10:08R14計(jì)算excess spread return時(shí),POD * LGD 這一項(xiàng)要不要“去年化”?原版書(shū)example 12第3問(wèn),計(jì)算POD * LGD考慮了實(shí)際持有時(shí)間6個(gè)月,因此乘以0.5。但在原版書(shū)課后題第12題,實(shí)際持有時(shí)間為0(instantaneous decline),在計(jì)算initial spread的時(shí)候就考慮了持有時(shí)間為0,但為什么后面的POD * LGD 這一項(xiàng)不用乘以0?
所屬:CFA Level III > Fixed-Income Portfolio Management 視頻位置 相關(guān)試題
來(lái)源: 視頻位置 相關(guān)試題
1個(gè)回答
Nicholas助教
2022-10-08 15:35
該回答已被題主采納
同學(xué),下午好。
1. 需要區(qū)分是持有債券時(shí)間還是利率的瞬時(shí)變化,這兩個(gè)是不同的,像同學(xué)說(shuō)的例題中明確說(shuō)明債券持有期間則第一項(xiàng)和第三項(xiàng)需要考慮時(shí)間問(wèn)題;
2. 12題這里勘誤了,內(nèi)容如下,
Practice Problem 12 (page 134 of print) should read, “What is the expected excess spread of the BBB rated bond for an instantaneous a 50 bp decline in yield over a one-year period if the bond’s LGD is 40% and the POD is 0.75%?”
加油,祝你順利通過(guò)考試~
