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2023-08-10 00:01Module 8-Question 21- 此鏈接中http://www.h8045.cn/home/questiondetail.html?ifTask=1&QuesId=608409&from=1 1. 為什么“降低貿(mào)易盈余時，本國經(jīng)常賬戶是下降的，對應的資本金融賬戶赤字也是下降的”？尤其是后半句“對應的資本金融賬戶赤字也是下降的”，請解答。這個知識點在教材第幾頁？2. 在國際收支平衡表中，為什么”經(jīng)常賬戶余額+資本金融賬戶余額=0”？這個知識點在教材第幾頁？3.B為什么錯？因為得是domestic country這么做才行，不能由foreign來做？書（2022-L1V2）P460-Example 8-Solution to 3第7-8行，說的就是For Australia’s trade balance to decline, it must save less (S down), invest more (I up).
所屬：CFA Level I > Economics 視頻位置 相關試題
來源： 視頻位置 相關試題
1個回答
Alex助教
2023-08-10 09:55
該回答已被題主采納
你好同學
1 是根據(jù)384頁這兩句
Net exports or the difference between exports and imports (X – M) is the equivalent of the current account balance from a BOP perspective
In order for the balance of payments to balance, a deficit or surplus in the current account must be offset by an opposite balance in the sum of the capital and financial accounts.
2 376頁
The BOP is a double-entry system in which every transaction involves both a debit and credit. In principle, the sum of all debit entries should equal the sum of all credit entries, and the net balance of all entries on the BOP statement should equal zero.
3 X-M=S-I+T-G這個公式里右邊都是指的本國的S，I，T，G。
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