這里應(yīng)該是actual return-interest income，而不是net interest expense吧？
此題當(dāng)中，當(dāng)計(jì)算β時(shí)，答案使用了第二個(gè)公式，請(qǐng)問(wèn)，為什么不是使用第一個(gè)公式，而是使用第二個(gè)公式呢，
這道怎么計(jì)算呀
A hedge fund with $98 million of initial capital charges a management fee of 2% and an incentive fee of 20%. The management fee is based on assets under management at year end and the incentive fee is calculated independently from the management fee. The fee structure has a high water mark provision. The fund value is $112 million at the end of Year 1, $100 million at the end of Year 2 and $116 million at the end of Year 3. The net-of-fees return earned by the fund in Year 3 is closest to: [A]14.15%. [B}11.87%. [C]12.33%. 解釋 12.33% results from calculating the incentive fee using the net capital position at the end of Year 2 instead of the high water mark value established at the end of Year 1. Management fee = Year-end value × Management fee % = $116 million × 2% = $2.32 million Incentive fee = (Year-end value – Year 2 Ending capital position) × Incentive fee % = ($116 million – $98 million) × 20% = $3.60 million. Total fees = Management fee + Incentive fee = $2.32 million + $3.60 million = $5.92 million Net-of-fees return: = (Year-end value – Total fees – Beginning capital position)/Beginning capital position = ($116 million – $5.92 million – $98 million)/$98 millio
老師 百題FSA Case6-5 答案C是不是表述有誤？ 如果選least likely 我覺(jué)得應(yīng)該選A 還有題干里說(shuō)local currency will remain stable 有何意義？對(duì)答題好像沒(méi)有影響？
請(qǐng)問(wèn)老師這道題考的是哪個(gè)公式啊？看答案也不太明白。謝謝您
老師，第95題好像沒(méi)有講過(guò)這個(gè)知識(shí)點(diǎn)。題目和答案都在附件中，請(qǐng)您幫我解答一下。PS：這個(gè)知識(shí)點(diǎn)要掌握嗎
老師，這道題怎么看出來(lái)是考exposure啊。我覺(jué)得translation gain or loss不是需要通過(guò)很復(fù)雜的計(jì)算才能算出來(lái)嗎？為什么直接用exposure就能判斷？
在direct income approach中， 將計(jì)1算的terminal value 折現(xiàn)到0時(shí)點(diǎn)所用的折現(xiàn)率是going-in cap rate里面的R1還是terminal cap rate里面的R2呢？在term and reversion approach和layer method 里面用的是R2。謝謝
在direct income approach中， 將計(jì)1算的terminal value 折現(xiàn)到0時(shí)點(diǎn)所用的折現(xiàn)率是going-in cap rate里面的R1還是terminal cap rate里面的R2呢？在term and reversion approach和layer method 里面用的是R2。謝謝
為何該題使用算數(shù)加權(quán)而非幾何加權(quán)
老師講課的時(shí)候?qū)ｉT說(shuō)了成熟階段形成寡頭壟斷，不太會(huì)打價(jià)格戰(zhàn)，所以為什么不是a？
我覺(jué)得對(duì)于Adams而言應(yīng)該是limit buy @90;對(duì)于Brown而言應(yīng)該是stop buy @75，請(qǐng)老師給予釋疑！
沒(méi)有理解到這個(gè)題的解析意思。
Net revenue是什么概念呢？和revenue有什么區(qū)別呢？
金程問(wèn)答