金程問(wèn)答老師 第五題 c選項(xiàng)我還不懂 sigema(ul)的那個(gè)公式哪里來(lái)的?
老師好,有幾個(gè)問(wèn)題: 1、Risk Management Comittee的職責(zé)到底是監(jiān)督高級(jí)管理層還是規(guī)定計(jì)劃公司的風(fēng)險(xiǎn)偏好、審查具體金融產(chǎn)品和投資計(jì)劃的風(fēng)險(xiǎn)水平評(píng)估,前面Risk Management Comittee和CRO的ppt內(nèi)容主要是關(guān)于風(fēng)險(xiǎn)偏好和公司風(fēng)險(xiǎn)水平的設(shè)定的(與監(jiān)督管理層無(wú)關(guān)),后面一頁(yè)關(guān)于The Independence of Funtional Units的ppt內(nèi)容又寫道Risk Management Comittee的職責(zé)是supervise Senior management ,如果它監(jiān)督supervise Senior management的話,審計(jì)委員會(huì)做什么? 2、G-20建議中有一條基于股票的薪酬去激勵(lì)長(zhǎng)期的價(jià)值創(chuàng)造,但是前面不是一直提到不能讓CEO基于股價(jià)給予薪酬嗎,這樣容易造成短期股價(jià)上升和長(zhǎng)期隱患。
最小方差組合是哪里啊
老師好,極值理論evt是怎么算的?
第二個(gè)選項(xiàng)請(qǐng)問(wèn)老師是什么意思?net………investment謝謝
請(qǐng)問(wèn)老師,書上這段沒(méi)有看懂,可否解釋下,多謝 The basic premise of APT is that investors can create a zero-beta portfolio with zero net investment. If such a portfolio yields a positive return, however, then a sure profit can be real-ized through arbitrage. The fundamental result, as proved by Professor Ross, is that the absence of arbitrage opportunities requires the expected return on all well-diversified portfolios to satisfy E(RP) = E(RZ) + bP1[E(I1) - E(RZ)]+ c +bPK [E(IK) - E(RZ)] where RP is the return on a well-diversified portfolio with expected return E(RP); bPk is the factor loading for the portfolio P related to factor k; E(RZ) is the expected rate of return on the zero-beta port-folio (i.e., the risk-free rate) such that Cov(Ik, RZ) = 0, for k = 1, c,K; and E(Ik) - E(RZ) is the risk premium associated with factor k.
老師,去年十一月的原版書跟7月的原版書有區(qū)別嗎?可以看十一月的原版書嗎?
35題,ERM是個(gè)消極的方式嗎,但是D選項(xiàng)說(shuō)是主動(dòng),C選擇說(shuō)manage downside risk是不是錯(cuò)的?因?yàn)镋RM是更注重大風(fēng)險(xiǎn)吧?
49題是啥啊,fama三因素難道不是一個(gè)期望值+三個(gè)調(diào)整因素嗎?為啥這里是無(wú)風(fēng)險(xiǎn)利率,還有就是apt,單因素和多因素模型的具體表達(dá)式是什么,有沒(méi)有手寫的版本注明一下各個(gè)字母代表什么,老弄不清楚啥時(shí)候是期望收益做截距項(xiàng),什么時(shí)候是無(wú)風(fēng)險(xiǎn)利率做截距項(xiàng)
老師,Example 1 里面最后算出來(lái)的結(jié)果是12.46% 相比較題目給的forecasted return 10% 還是沒(méi)明白為什么是overvalued?
143習(xí)題冊(cè) the use of ABCP and repos by banks to fund investment mortgages led to problems because: A, the commercial paper was unsecured. B, it exposed banks to funding liquidity risk C, the duration of the liabilities exceed the duration of the asset D, ratings agencies provided unrealistically high ratings for the assets.這個(gè)題各個(gè)選項(xiàng)麻煩解釋下
72題B選項(xiàng),請(qǐng)問(wèn)老師 B選項(xiàng) loss severity 到底是絕對(duì)值還是百分比,它應(yīng)該服從對(duì)數(shù)正態(tài)分布還是正態(tài)分布?
這個(gè)題不太會(huì) 想知道如何分析
為什么在CAPM模型算出來(lái)的,與實(shí)際相比,實(shí)際大就是低估了n而債券模型算出來(lái)的,與實(shí)際比,實(shí)際大就是高估了
老師,請(qǐng)問(wèn)一下視頻里的老師說(shuō)這里的杠桿率是5%,保持杠桿率不變,這個(gè)杠桿率是如何得出的呢?
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