老師,您好,辛苦講一下,謝謝 A client has asked his adviser to explain the key considerations in forecasting exchange rates. The adviser’s firm uses two broad complementary approaches when setting expectations for exchange rate movements, namely focus on trade in goods and services and, secondly, focus on capital flows. /以下問題 Identify the main considerations that the adviser should explain to the client under the two approaches.
原版書第15頁的這個(gè)例題,用兩種方法計(jì)算了資產(chǎn)的預(yù)期收益,第一種是先用CAPM分別計(jì)算擴(kuò)張期和衰退期的資產(chǎn)預(yù)期回報(bào),再把兩種情況下的回報(bào)加權(quán)平均,第二種方法是先加權(quán)平均市場預(yù)期回報(bào),再用這個(gè)市場回報(bào)帶入CAPM模型計(jì)算出資產(chǎn)的預(yù)期回報(bào),這個(gè)beta用的是擴(kuò)展和衰退期的beta的加權(quán)平均。書上的解釋說第二種方法錯(cuò)誤,因?yàn)楹雎粤耸袌龅某~收益與資產(chǎn)的beta之間隨商業(yè)周期的變化而變化,還是沒有理解為什么第二種方法錯(cuò)誤,請老師再解釋一下。其實(shí)第二種方法也用了擴(kuò)張和衰退期的beta來加權(quán)平均的啊。
10. In DeMarco’s discussion with Morgan regarding the comparison of REITs versus direct real estate as an investment, which of the following statements are most likely correct? A. Although REITs tend to act like real estate in the short run, they act like stocks in the longer run.B. Studies have shown that direct real estate investment is a good diversifier since it is not very highly correlated with equities.C. REITs are more highly correlated with direct real estate investment and less highly correlated with equities over multi-year time horizons
從capital market來initial recovery階段,債券yield上升,債券價(jià)格下降,是因?yàn)榻?jīng)濟(jì)復(fù)蘇對于債券的需求下降嗎?
老師,請解析一下CME這道官網(wǎng)題
2022.5.20 CME Example直播:https://grr.h5.xeknow.com/sl/2l8IjF下方公式寫出來的意義是什么?怎么就能說明常數(shù)不影響方差了呢?
沒明白期限錯(cuò)配 我們要求的是平均收益率 就應(yīng)該在平均無風(fēng)險(xiǎn)收益率上疊加 用期初還是用期末的無風(fēng)險(xiǎn)利率都不準(zhǔn) 又何必非要用futures來算一個(gè)未來的短期無風(fēng)險(xiǎn)利率呢
為什么fip是overvalued
請問選項(xiàng)c是什么意思?跟無法預(yù)估turning point意思一樣嗎
怎么理解最后兩個(gè)打勾的關(guān)于current account deficit的 點(diǎn) ,不是很明白
貨幣政策寬松,通賬上升,但貨幣政策寬松,是降息,短期利率曲線下降,這兩個(gè)矛盾嗎?名義利率不就無法區(qū)分上升下降
老師,這里雖然考慮了杠桿和房地產(chǎn)類型,但是沒有考慮REITs的流動性 更好,這樣也會導(dǎo)致它們倆的收益和風(fēng)險(xiǎn)不一樣而不是類似
老師,密卷1case2第1題怎么理解?
對tips,折現(xiàn)率ytm里只有實(shí)際收益率,但是當(dāng)半年后付coupon時(shí)候,相當(dāng)于把通賬部分用coupon付了,實(shí)際上到手的區(qū)間收益仍然包括通賬。這里ytm不含通賬,但到手收益率包含怎么理解?
老師,原版書的這個(gè)例題(example 9),他的guideline answers不是太理解,可以稍微解釋下嗎?謝謝!
程寶問答