老師，下面的說明懂。那這個兩個國家的收益率曲線斜率有差異，最終結(jié)論是什么？在陡峭的國家支固收??？平坦的國家收固支??？
答案說的分別對應(yīng)什么步驟 euros (the base currency) must be sold against the US dollar，為什么要賣歐元？the forward contract would entail buying euros at a higher price，為什么又要買？為什么要這樣操作，forward rate比spot rate小，不是直接可以判斷roll yield是negative嗎
strategy 1有什么問題嗎，我覺得每一步都很合理??？反倒是strategy 2, 預(yù)期CHF會升值，那long一個strike price那么高的put是干嘛
Regarding the currency overlay program, it will add value to the portfolio only if the currency alpha has a low correlation with other asset classes in the portfolio 為什么？
解析是什么意思？ The high correlation between the currencies does not help here because the investor will be using forward contracts to sell both of these currencies. ？？
題目不是說了the shares had increased to EUR100 each 并且 and the increase in the notional size of the position was hedged using currency options。這么重要的信息為什么不用？
a decline in the US trade deficit, 說的很模糊啊，絕對值的減少還是帶符號的減少？
B選項不重要么，為什么？
題目哪里說了這是Exchange-traded futures
1.投資外幣無風險資產(chǎn)標準差為什么不是前面方差的根號，F(xiàn)X的項均為0？得出DC標準差等于FX標準差。 2.推論這里GBP為外幣，個股企業(yè)是這個英國個股，考察的就是外國企業(yè)？
解析這句話怎么理解，An increase in the expected correlation between movements in the foreign-currency asset returns and movements in the spot exchange rates from 0.50 to 0.80 would increase the domestic-currency return risk but would not change the level of expected domestic-currency return. 這是為什么？
請解釋下這題三個選項，完全不知所云
什么是effective interest rate? 不應(yīng)該是凈的概念嗎
老師，幫忙解釋下這道題為什么選A呢
老師，這道題是沒講清楚嗎，只給了10-year CDS的notional，和勇long-short CDS strategy就能說明期初要構(gòu)建的組合是interest rate netural的嗎？另外long哪個，short哪個也沒說
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